SCIENCE CLASS 8 ALL IMPORTANT MCQ FOR FINAL EXAM 2023

         SCIENCE CLASS 8 ALL IMPORTANT MCQ  FOR                                               FINAL EXAM 2023

Microorganisms: Friend and Foe Class 8 MCQs

Question 1.
Tiny organisms which cannot be seen with the naked eyes are called
(a) microorganisms
(b) animals
(c) fungi
(d) bacteria

Question 2.
Microorganisms are also known as
(a) yeast
(b) microbes
(c) viruses
(d) Amoeba

Question 3.
Fungus can be seen with a
(a) microscope
(b) telescope
(c) magnifying glass
(d) both (a) and (c)

Question 4.
Microorganisms that causes disease are also known as
(a) pathogens
(b) fungi
(c) antigen
(d) microbes

Question 5.
Pathogens are also called
(a) germs
(b) antigen
(c) antibody
(d) carrier

Question 6.
Bacteria are ______ organisms.
(a) multicellular
(b) unicellular
(c) bicellular
(d) tricellular

Question 7.
Bacilli are the bacteria that are
(a) rod-shaped
(b) comma-shaped
(c) curved-shaped
(d) spiral

Question 8.
Spherical-shaped bacteria are called
(a) bacilli
(b) vibrio
(c) spirilla
(d) cocci

Question 9.
Simple, plant-like microorganisms are called
(a) algae
(b) bacteria
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) protozoa

Question 10.
Medium that transmits pathogens from an infected person to a healthy one is called
(a) fungi
(b) germs
(c) carrier
(d) none of these

Question 11.
Medicine that kills or stops the growth of harmful disease-causing microbes is known as
(a) antibiotic
(b) antibody
(c) antigen
(d) vaccine

Question 12.
The process in which sugar in the food is transformed into alcohol and carbon dioxide by using microorganisms is known as
(a) transformation
(b) beverage
(c) fermentation
(d) respiration

Question 13.
The fungus that is commonly used in bakery and beverage industries is
(a) Penicillium
(b) Yeast
(c) Ascariasis
(d) Rhizopus

Question 14.
Giardia is listed under the category of
(a) fungi
(b) protozoa
(c) bacteria
(d) algae

Question 15.
Substance used to produce immunity against diseases in the living body is called
(a) immune
(b) vaccine
(c) antibody
(d) antigen

Question 16.
How much nitrogen is present in the atmosphere?
(a) 78%
(b) 88%
(c) 68%
(d) 58%

Question 17.
Malaria is caused by which type of microbe?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Algae
(d) Protozoa

Question 18.
Common cold is caused by which type of microbe?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Algae
(d) Fungi

Question 19.
Which of the following diseases is caused by a fungus?
(a) Cholera
(b) Common cold
(c) Ringworm
(d) Dengue

Question 20.
Antibiotics are effective against
(a) bacteria
(b) algae
(c) viruses
(d) all of the above

Question 21.
Penicillin was discovered by
(a) Edward Jenner
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Alexander Fleming
(d) Robert Koch

Question 22.
Mushroom belongs to the group of
(a) algae
(b) viruses
(c) fungi
(d) none of these

Question 23.
Amoeba belongs to
(a) algae
(b) fungi
(c) protozoa
(d) viruses

Question 24.
Scientist who discovered fermentation is
(a) Alexander Fleming
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) John Mendel
(d) Edward Jenner

Question 25.
Microorganisms are
(a) unicellular
(b) multicellular
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Question 26.
The microorganisms that cause diseases in human beings, plants and animals are called
(a) carriers
(b) mosquitoes
(c) pathogens
(d) antibodies

Question 27.
Who discovered the vaccine for smallpox?
(a) Louis Pasteur
(b) Alexander Fleming
(c) Joseph Lister
(d) Edward Jenner

Question 28.
The algae commonly used as a fertiliser are
(a) staphylococcus
(b) diatoms
(c) blue-green algae
(d) none of these

Question 29.
The microorganisms smaller than bacteria are
(a) viruses
(b) protozoan
(c) fungi
(d) algae

Materials: Metals and Non-Metals Class 8 MCQs 

Question 1.
Metals are
(a) shiny
(b) hard
(c) sonorous
(d) all of these

Question 2.
Non-metals are
(a) non-ductile
(b) non-sonorous
(c) non-malleable
(d) all of these

Question 3.
Which of the following is a non-metal?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Oxygen
(c) Iron
(d) Silver

Question 4.
Metalloids possess the properties of
(a) metals
(b) non-metals
(c) both metals and non-metals
(d) none of these

Question 5.
The most reactive metal is
(a) copper
(b) zinc
(c) potassium
(d) gold

Question 6.
Non-metals are
(a) generally gases
(b) generally liquids
(c) generally solids
(d) generally solid and gases

Question 7.
Which of the following metal is stored in kerosene?
(a) Sodium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Zinc

Question 8.
Metal oxides are
(a) neutral
(b) basic
(c) acidic
(d) all of these

Question 9.
The non-metal which is liquid at room temperature is
(a) bromine
(b) chlorine
(c) iodine
(d) carbon

Question 10.
Which substance is used for making pencil lead?
(a) Sulphur
(b) Silicon
(c) Graphite
(d) Aluminium

Question 11.
Which non-metal is used in making glass?
(a) Graphite
(b) Sulphur
(c) Silica
(d) None of these

Question 12.
Which metal is used in wrapping materials?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Zinc
(c) Copper
(d) None of these

Question 13.
The metal found in liquid state is
(a) mercury
(b) silver
(c) calcium
(d) sodium

Question 14.
The most ductile metal is
(a) silver
(b) gold
(c) copper
(d) aluminium

Question 15.
Non-metals
(a) react with water
(b) do not react with water
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Question 16.
Which of the following metals are soft enough to be even cut with a knife?
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium
(c) Lithium
(d) All of these

Question 17.
Which is the hardest substance?
(a) Gold
(b) Diamond
(c) Aluminium
(d) None of these

Question 18.
Metals react with acids to produce respective salts with evolution of
(a) hydrogen gas
(b) oxygen gas
(c) CO2 gas
(d) none of these

Question 19.
In displacement reactions
(a) a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal.
(b) a less reactive metal displaces a more reactive metal.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Question 20.
Which of the following non-metals are used in fertilisers?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Question 21.
When non-metal reacts with water
(a) hydrogen gas is formed
(b) carbon dioxide gas is formed
(c) non-metals generally do not react with water.
(d) none of these.

Question 22.
The property of metals by which they can be beaten into thin sheets is called
(a) malleability
(b) ductility
(c) conduction
(d) expansion

Question 23.
Which one of the following is a metal?
(a) C
(b) N
(c) Na
(d) O

Question 24.
Which of the following does not show the property of malleability?
(a) Iron
(b) Graphite
(c) Aluminium
(d) Silver

Question 25.
Which one of the following is a good conductor of electricity?
(a) Iron
(b) Plastic
(c) Wood
(d) Glass

Question 26.
The property of a metal by which it can be drawn into wires is called
(a) conductivity
(b) malleability
(c) ductility
(d) flexibility

Question 27.
The metals that produce ringing sounds are said to be
(a) malleable
(b) sonorous
(c) lustrous
(d) hard

Question 28.
The solution of ash of magnesium ribbon in water is
(a) acidic
(b) basic
(c) neutral
(d) none of these

Question 29.
When sulphur dioxide is dissolved in water
(a) sulphur is formed
(b) sulphur trioxide is formed
(c) sulphuric acid is formed
(d) sulphurous acid is formed

Question 30.
What is the chemical formula of sulphurous acid?
(a) H2SO4
(b) SO2
(c) SO3
(d) H2SO3

Question 31.
Sodium metal is stored in
(a) water
(b) alcohol
(c) kerosene
(d) ether

Question 32.
Which one of the following metals reacts vigorously with oxygen and water?
(a) Sodium
(b) Iron
(c) Calcium
(d) Magnesium

Question 33.
What is the chemical formula of copper sulphate?
(a) CuSO4
(b) CuCO3
(c) CuCl2
(d) CuO

Question 34.
Which gas is produced when metals react with acids?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Carbon dioxide

Question 35.
Which one of the following does not react with acids?
(a) Cu
(b) Ni
(c) Cr
(d) O

Question 36.
Which one of the following gas burns with a ‘pop’ sound?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Chlorine
(d) Hydrogen sulphide

Question 37.
Which one of the following is applied on wounds as an antiseptic?
(a) Sodium
(b) Iodine
(c) Brass
(d) All of these

Question 38.

Which one of the following is a very reactive non-metal?

(a) Sodium

(b) Potassium

(c) Carbon

(d) Phosphorous

Reproduction in Animals Class 8 MCQs

Question 1.
The number of modes by which animals reproduce are
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) none of these

Question 2.
Binary fission is observed in
(a) Hydra
(b) yeast
(c) Amoeba
(d) human being

Question 3.
Asexual reproduction is observed in
(a) cow
(b) buffalo
(c) sponge
(d) hen

Question 4.
In Hydra, the mode of reproduction is
(a) asexual
(b) sexual
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Question 5.
The animals that produce new young ones are called
(a) viviparous
(b) oviparous
(c) both
(d) none of these

Question 6.
The male gamete or sperm consists of
(a) three parts
(b) two parts
(c) four parts
(d) none of these

Question 7.
Ovum or eggs are formed in
(a) ovary
(b) testes
(c) penis
(d) oviduct

Question 8.
Internal fertilisation takes place
(a) inside male body
(b) inside female body
(c) outside female body
(d) outside male body

Question 9.
In humans, the development of fertilised egg takes place in the
(a) ovary
(b) oviduct
(c) testis
(d) uterus

Question 10.
The cell formed after fertilisation is called
(a) embryo
(b) foetus
(c) zygote
(d) egg

Question 11.
The fusion of sperm and ova usually occur in the
(a) ovary
(b) uterus
(c) testes
(d) oviduct

Question 12.
Sets of reproductive terms are given below. Choose the set that has an incorrect combination.
(a) Sperm, testis, sperm duct, penis
(b) Menstruation, egg, oviduct, uterus
(c) Sperm, oviduct, egg, uterus
(d) Ovulation, egg, oviduct, uterus

Question 13.
Which of the following shows external fertilisation?
(a) Frog
(b) Human being
(c) Cow
(d) Hen

Question 14.
Which one of the following is not a part of female reproductive organs?
(a) Uterus
(b) Ovary
(c) Oviduct
(d) Penis

Question 15.
In the list of animals given below, hen is the odd one out.
‘human being, cow, dog, hen’
The reason for this is
(a) it undergoes internal fertilisation
(b) it is oviparous
(c) it is viviparous
(d) it undergoes external fertilisation

Question 16.
Animals exhibiting external fertilisation produce a large number of gametes. Pick the appropriate reason from the following
(a) The animals are small in size and want to produce more offspring.
(b) Food is available in plenty in water.
(c) To ensure better chance of fertilisation.
(d) Water promotes production of large number of gametes.

Question 17.
Which is not a viviparous animal?
(a) Human being
(b) Cow
(c) Dog
(d) Butterfly

Question 18.
Budding occurs in
(a) Amoeba
(b) dog
(c) Paramecium
(d) yeast

Question 19.
The female gamete is called
(a) ova
(b) sperm
(c) zygote
(d) uterus

Question 20.
The male gamete is called
(a) sperm
(b) ova
(c) embryo
(d) zygote

Question 21.
The gestation period in humans is of how much duration?
(a) 10 weeks
(b) 20 weeks
(c) 30 weeks
(d) 40 weeks

Question 22.
How many daughter cells are produced after binary fission in Amoeba?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

Question 23.
In humans, how many eggs are released by an ovary every month?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Many

Question 24.
Where does the fertilisation take place in the female reproductive system?
(a) Uterus
(b) Fallopian tubes
(c) Ovary
(d) Testis

Question 25.
Which of the following is a viviparous animal?
(a) Salmon
(b) Cobra
(c) Salamander
(d) Dolphin

Question 26.
Which of the following shows external fertilisation?
(a) Rohu
(b) Crocodile
(c) Tortoise
(d) Crow

Question 27.
The male gametes are called
(a) ovaries
(b) sperms
(c) zygote
(d) eggs

Question 28.
The female gametes are called
(a) ovaries
(b) sperms
(c) zygote
(d) eggs

Question 30.
The male gametes are produced by the
(a) ovaries
(b) testes
(c) eggs
(d) sperms

Question 31.
The fusion of male and female gametes that takes place outside the body of the female is called
(a) internal fertilisation
(b) fertilisation
(c) external fertilisation
(d) reproduction

Question 32.
The zygote that begins to develop tissues of the body is known as
(a) fertiliser
(b) zygote
(c) embryo
(d) foetus

Question 33.
The stage of the embryo where all the body parts can be identified is known as
(a) zygote
(b) foetus
(c) embryo
(d) infant

Question 34.
The animals which give birth to young ones are known as
(a) oviparous animals
(b) viviparous animals
(c) wild animals
(d) domestic animals

Question 35.
The animals which lay eggs are known as
(a) oviparous animals
(b) viviparous animals
(c) domestic animals
(d) wild animals

Force and Pressure Class 8 MCQs

Question 1.
The pressure which is exerted by air around us is known as
(a) force
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) muscular force
(d) friction

Question 2.
Force acting on per unit area is called
(a) non-contact forces
(b) contact forces
(c) force
(d) pressure

Question 3.
A exerted by an object on another is a force.
(a) Push or pull
(b) Contact or non-contact force
(c) Pressure
(d) Magnitude

Question 4.
The force exerted by the earth to pull the object towards itself is called
(a) electrostatic force
(b) gravitational force
(c) muscular force
(d) contact force

Question 5.
Muscular force is also called __________ force.
(a) non-contact
(b) contact
(c) gravitational

Question 6.
The force exerted by a charged body on another charged or uncharged body is called
(a) gravitational force
(b) electrostatic force
(c) non-contact force
(d) contact force

Question 7.

Force changes the

(a) motion of body

(b) speed of body

(c) shape of body

(d) all of these

(d) magnetic

Question 8.

The force exerted by our muscle is called
(a) electrostatic force
(b) muscular force
(c) gravitational force
(d) non-contact force

Question 9.
1 kilogram weight is equal to
(a) 98 N
(b) 9.8 N
(c) 0.98 N
(d) 0.098 N

Question 10.
A spring balance is used for measuring
(a) mass
(b) weight
(c) pressure
(d) speed

Question 11.
Two boys A and B are applying force on a block. If the block moves towards the boy A, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Magnitude of force applied by A is greater than that of B.
(b) Magnitude of force applied by A is smaller than that of B.
(c) Net force on the block is towards B.
(d) Magnitude of force applied by A is equal to that of B.

Question 12.
When two forées act in opposite directions, then net force acting is the
(a) sum of two forces
(b) difference between two forces
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Question 13.
The strength of force is expressed by its
(a) weight
(b) mass
(c) magnitude
(d) longitudinal force

Question 14.
Leaves fall down on the ground due to
(a) electrostatic force
(b) magnetic force
(c) gravitational force
(d) muscular force

Question 15.
State of motion is described by
(a) Position of rest
(b) Position of motion
(c) Both by the state of rest or motion
(d) None of these

Question 16.
When the hammer strikes the gong of an electric bell, which of the following force is responsible for the movement of hammer?
(a) Gravitational force alone
(b) Magnetic force alone
(c) Electrostatic force alone
(d) Frictional force alone

Question 17.
During dry weather, while combing hair, sometimes we experience hair flying apart. The force responsible for this is
(a) force of gravity
(b) force of friction
(c) electrostatic force
(d) magnetic force

Question 18.
A container is filled with water as shown in the given figure. Which of the following statements is correct about pressure of water?

(a) Pressure at A > Pressure at B > Pressure at C
(b) Pressure at A = Pressure at B = Pressure at C
(c) Pressure at A < Pressure at B > Pressure at C
(d) Pressure at A < Pressure at B < Pressure at C

Question 19.
Two objects repel each other. This repulsion could be due to
(a) frictional force only
(b) electrostatic force only
(c) magnetic force only
(d) either a magnetic or an electrostatic force

Question 20.
Which one of the following forces is a contact force?
(a) Force of gravity
(b) Magnetic force
(c) Force of friction
(d) Electrostatic force

Question 21.
A brick is kept in three different ways on a table as shown in given figure. The pressure exerted by the brick on the table will be

(a) maximum in position A
(c) maximum in position B
(b) maximum in position C
(d) equal in all cases

Question 22.
Which force is being applied by a vendor when he is pushing the pushcart?
(a) Muscular force
(b) Magnetic force
(c) Frictional force
(d) Electrostatic force

Question 23.
Which force always opposes motion?
(a) Magnetic force
(b) Electrostatic force
(c) Frictional force
(d) Muscular force

Question 24.
Which of the following exerts gravitational force?
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) All of the above

Question 25.
Which force causes a charged balloon to attract another balloon?
(a) Muscular force
(b) Electrostatic force
(c) Magnetic force
(d) Gravitational force

Question 26.
What is the SI unit of force?
(a) Newton
(b) Galileo
(c) Einstein
(d) Pascal

Question 27.
As we go to the higher altitudes, the atmospheric pressure
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) cannot say

Question 28.
The pressure of the water at the bottom of the pond is than at the surface.
(a) lower
(b) higher
(c) same
(d) either lower or higher

Question 29.
A body is said to be under balanced forces when the resultant of all the forces applied is
(a) one
(b) zero
(c) infinite
(d) none of these

Question 30.
Opening a door is an example of a
(a) contact force
(b) non-contact force
(c) muscular force
(d) both (a) and (c)

Question 31.
What is the cause of change in the state of motion of an object?
(a) Pressure
(b) Atmospheric pressure
(c) Friction
(d) Force

Light Class 8 MCQs

Question 1.
We are able to see an object due to the presence of
(a) light
(b) dark
(c) refraction
(d) object

Question 2.
The bouncing back of light into the same medium is called
(a) refraction
(b) reflection
(c) dispersion
(d) diffraction

Question 3.
A mirror has _____ surface.
(a) rough
(b) polished
(c) dark
(d) all of these

Question 4.
Maximum part of light is reflected by
(a) opaque object
(b) translucent object
(c) transparent object
(d) all of these

Question 5.
Beam of light striking the reflecting surface is called
(a) incident ray
(b) reflected ray
(c) refracted ray
(d) normal ray

Question 6.
The back side of a plane mirror contains
(a) gold coating
(b) silver coating
(c) aluminium coating
(d) copper coating

Question 7.
The perpendicular drawn to the reflecting surface is called
(a) normal
(b) incident ray
(c) reflected ray
(d) none of these

Question 8.
There are ________ laws of reflection.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four

Question 9.
The angle of incidence is always _______ to the angle of reflection.
(a) greater
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) none of these

Question 10.
The angle between the reflected ray and the normal is called
(a) angle of incidence
(b) reflected ray
(c) angle of reflection
(d) point of incidence

Question 11.
The reflection of light from a smooth surface is called
(a) diffused reflection
(b) regular reflection
(c) dispersion
(d) spectrum

Question 12.
Which of the following results in diffused reflection?
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Shiny surface
(c) Silver
(d) Wood

Question 13.
The nature of image formed by plane mirror is
(a) real and inverted
(b) virtual and erect
(c) real and erect
(d) virtual and inverted

Question 14.
If you hold a pen in your right hand and stand in front of the mirror, the pen will be in the left hand in the image. This phenomenon is called
(a) lateral inversion
(b) diffraction
(c) reflection
(d) inversion

Question 15.
If two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 40°, number of images formed will be
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 5

Question 16.
Type of mirror used as side view mirror is
(a) convex mirror
(b) plane mirror
(c) concave mirror
(d) ground mirror

Question 17.
Band of seven colours is called
(a) VIBGYOR
(b) dispersion
(c) spectrum
(d) reflection

Question 18.
Front bulged part of the eyeball is called
(a) cornea
(b) iris
(c) retina
(d) pupil

Question 19.

Two mirrors A and B are placed at right angles to each other. A ray of light incident on mirror A at an angle of 25° falls on mirror B after reflection. The angle of reflection for the ray reflected from mirror B would be

(a) 25°

(b) 50°

(c) 65°

(d) 115°

Question 20.
Visually impaired people can read and write using
(a) electronic writer
(b) Braille system
(c) digital pens
(d) hearing aids

Question 21.
A toy is placed at 10 cm in front of a plane mirror. What is the distance of image from the mirror?
(a) 20 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 30 cm

Question 22.
A candle is 30 cm high. What is the height of its image in a plane mirror?
(a) 10 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 45 cm

Question 23.
Which of the following works on the concept of multiple reflections?
(a) Telescope
(b) Binoculars
(c) Kaleidoscope
(d) Sunglasses

Question 24.
Visually challenged people can read and write with
(a) hearing aid
(b) electronic type writer
(c) Braille system
(d) digital pen

Question 25.
The human eye can clearly see up to which distance?
(a) Infinity
(b) 1000 km
(c) 100 km
(d) 10 km

Question 26.
The human eye cannot see clearly at a distance which is less than
(a) 2.5 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 1.5 cm

Question 27.
The angle between the incident ray and the normal is called angle of
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) transmission
(d) incidence

Question 28.
Which of the following parts of an eye controls the amount of light entering the eye by contracting or dilating?
(a) Retina
(b) Cornea
(c) Pupil
(d) Iris

Question 29.
The phenomenon of breaking up of white light into its seven constituent colours is called
(a) reflection of light
(b) refraction of light
(c) dispersion of light
(d) radiation of light

Question 30.
We can see ourselves in a mirror or a polished surface but not on walls because of
(a) regular reflection
(b) normal reflection
(c) irregular reflection
(d) specular reflection

Question 31.
How many cells are there in a Braille character?
(a) 12
(b) 9
(c) 3
(d) 6

Question 32.
Which of the following will produce a regular reflection?
(a) Tree leaf
(b) Wood
(c) Wall
(d) Mirror

Question 33.
An instrument which enables us to see things which are too small to be seen with naked eye is called
(a) microscope
(b) periscope
(c) kaleidoscope
(d) none of these

Question 34.
The property of a plane mirror to make ‘right appear as left’ and vice versa, is called
(a) vertical inversion
(b) lateral inversion
(c) reflection
(d) refraction

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science

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